Quote Originally Posted by HaylePie View Post
Hi Driller - can you, or anyone explain how the EU has distributed wealth to the benefit of anyone but the already wealthy? How is inequality after 40+ years of the EU? Either within or between countries. What mechanism does the EU have to address the balance? Do you think there is any hope of any rich country giving up any of its advantages to a poorer one to help build a better, fairer EU. Beneath the veneer of 'a European community' its all for one with the rich doing pretty damn fine.

Apologies - a lot of Qs for a Sunday morning, but I think that a lot of claims are made for the EU which simply don't stand up to scrutiny.
Inequality between countries has been reduced dramatically if you look at the funds made available for infrastructure projects in Eastern Europe.

Inequality within a country has more to do with national government seeing as national governments set national tax and spending policies, but you're right it has increased since the beginning of neo liberal economics in the late 70s early 80s, not just in the EU but all over the world.

Can you explain how inequality will get better outside of the EU?