The New York Times described the premeditated Tiberias massacre:

“Not since the riots of 1929, when Arabs fell on Jewish men, most of whom were rabbinical students, as well as women and children, in the ancient towns of Hebron and Safed, has there been in Palestine such a slaughter as the attack of last night…The attack apparently was well organized, since the Arab gang, before descending on Tiberias, cut all telephone communications. Coming in two parties from opposite directions at a given signal, which was a whistle blown from the hills surrounding the town, the firing began simultaneously in all quarters…the bandits went on to the house of Joshua Ben Arieh, where they stabbed and burned to death Joshua, his wife and one son, and then shot dead his infant son. In the same house three children of Shlomo Leimer, aged 8, 10, and 12, were stabbed and burned to death. Proceeding farther, the Arabs broke into the house of Shimon Mizrahi, where they killed his wife and five children, ranging in ages from 1 to 12 years, and then set fire to the house.”

Why the Arab Violence?
In the 1920s and 1930s no Arabs felt a need to leave or flee from their homes. There was no Jewish state at the time and the Jews didn’t have an army to “occupy” Palestinian land.
So why did the Arabs attack and massacre the Jews during those years?

Is it possible that the “Naqba” and “occupation” are excuses to simply justify Arab violence?

Is it possible the Arabs simply refused to accept any Jews living in the Holy Land?