https://www.middleeasteye.net/opinio...fV4NCsLoQEGjHE
Probably not.
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https://www.middleeasteye.net/opinio...fV4NCsLoQEGjHE
Probably not.
More Good news from israel ......
Israeli forces raze homes of 4 terrorists who killed soldier Dvir Sorek
The body of the 19-year-old, who neither in army uniform nor armed, was found last August near the settlement of Migdal Oz in the West Bank, close to the seminary where he studied as part of a program which combines Torah studies with military service
"Unfortunately, we cannot guarantee that there will not be anymore terror attacks, but those who raise their hand on Israeli citizens must pay a heavy price,” said Defence Minister Naftali Bennett shortly after the demolition was completed.
Get ready for more action as a new kid on the block instead of Bibi,......Defence Minister Naftali Bennett.
It's brutal, but I suppose that is what occupation forces do? No restraint, no real global outcry. Crack on Balan...
https://www.telesurenglish.net/news/...ewAZnZmta-XOY8
But, for the sake of argument, let us play devil’s advocate and assume Israel had no legal title to the territory in 1967. In that case, would Israel’s settlements be a violation of international law?
The answer is no, here is why:
The Fourth Geneva Convention provides the international law as relates to occupied territory, and is the basis of any legal argument against Israel on the subject of Israeli settlements. Therefore, in order to make the conclusion that Israel’s settlements are illegal under international law, one must be able to apply this convention to Israel’s presence in the area. And then, one must show that Israel is in violation of one of the provisions of the convention.
In order for a territory to be recognised as occupied by the Fourth Geneva Convention, a territory must have changed hands in a conflict in which one country takes control of foreign territory. In Israel’s case, the only other country that controlled the territory in question was Jordan. Yet, Jordan relinquished all claims to the territory in 1988 and recognised the territory as part of Israel in a peace treaty signed in 1994.
Thus, even if Israel’s capture of the territory in 1967 is considered an occupation, the fact that Jordan later relinquished all its claims and then recognised the territory as part of the State of Israel means any such occupation is long over.
But for argument’s sake let us play devil’s advocate and assume Israel is still an occupier to this day, as some might argue, despite the lack of an international conflict. Then, are the settlements illegal?
The answer is still no, here is why:
The convention only applies to states that are a party to the convention itself. Thus, both the occupier and the occupied must be a signatory to the convention in order for it to apply. Since the Arabs of the “West bank” are not a state, they are not a signatory to the Convention, therefore the Fourth Geneva Convention does not apply to this conflict. This position is shared by Professor Julius Stone, one of the 20th century’s leading authorities on international law, “Israel and Palestine, Assault on the Law of Nations” discourse 2, pg. 177.
This was also the position of a French Court of Appeals which stated: the Palestinian Authority is not a party to the Fourth Geneva Convention and therefore the convention does not apply to them.