"....the thieving aristocracy which as history shows obtained their land and wealth by royal patronage, that land having very often been removed from the control and ownership of poor people."

let me think back in history. When did the poor people control and own land?

Lets start by looking back to the Inclosure Acts, the first of which was in 1773. Prior to these acts the land was "owned" / controlled by the the lord of the local manor - some of it was set aside as waste, some as common land for communal grazing and the balance strip farmed by either the lord of the manor, or allocated by said lord of the manor to tenants, peasants, serfs or copyholders. The allocation of this land was "managed" by a manorial court; this was a very inefficient process and so full legal control was passed to the landowner and more efficient parcelling of the land was facilitated.

None of this would appear to reflect royal patronage, but rather a legally sanctioned aggregation of the land, whereunder the tenant/peasants were paid compensation to waive their rights to use of the land. I make no comment on the fairness of the system, but this was 250 years ago.

Crown ownership of land began on the death of William the Conqueror, who had owned the land by virtue of conquest - when the system of royal manors first started. There followed a development of feudal / vassal system. The idea of land ownership by anyone but the crown / under crown allocation only began to emerge in the mid 1600's

So we are back to 1066 as the most recent date when possibly "the poor people owned the land", at which time of course ownership of anything apart from some geese and a hut was inconceivable. As I understand it, under the Anglo Saxons there was a degree of feudalism and the church had done a massive land grab (there's a surprise) but essentially noone owned the land.

So exactly when did these poor people control and own the land that was thieved away?